ears to hear (Q2)...?

[nHissvc]

Is the Lord Jesus communicating, in the following scritpture, that He and the Father are not concurrently privy to all of the same information/knowledge and if so, is it due to His earthly form (or humbled state)?:


"But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father." (Mark 13:32)

[Xenia]

Is the Lord Jesus communicating, in the following scritpture, that He and the Father are not concurrently privy to all of the same information/knowledge and if so, is it due to His earthly form (or humbled state)?:

"But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father." (Mark 13:32)

In doing some research on this verse it seems to me that "neither the Son" is Yeshua referring to himself at the place in time that he is speaking. In his humbled state he is not or has not been given authority to make known this information to those he is talking to.

Or as John Gill (commentator) puts it:

Christ, as the son of man; though he did know it as the Son of God, who knows all things, and so this; but as the son of man, and from his human nature he had no knowledge of any thing future: what knowledge he had of future things in his humanity, he had from his deity; nor, as man, had he any commission to make known, nor did he make known the day of God's vengeance.